I answer
Twenty
Unanswerable Questions
for Pre-Trib
Believers:
From:
http://www.leftbehindlie.com/Questions.htm
Within my answers, I give the links at my site, to show
that these "unanswerable" questions do have
answers, and have had answers for a long time.
1. A Psalm of David.
Yahweh (“the LORD”) said unto my Lord, “Sit thou at my right hand,
until I make thine enemies thy footstool.” [Psalm 110:1]
In the above psalm, Yahweh is the Father, and “my
Lord” is Jesus/Yeshua. This single verse should assure
us all that Yeshua will not leave His Father’s side until the END of
the Tribulation. If Yeshua must sit at the
Father’s right hand UNTIL Yeshua’s enemies are humbled by the Father’s
intentions and power – which SURELY does not happen until the END of
the Tribulation – how can Christ come “for” His Church seven (or three
and one-half) years BEFORE the Father has done what He promises to do?
-------------
Answer:
When is Satan humbled (thus becoming the Lord's
footstool, thus allowing Jesus to leave the right hand of the father,
and come for us at the rapture?)
Revelation 12 tells us when Satan is kicked out of
Heaven-- it must take place before the 7
year tribulation.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/matt24commentary3.htm
Key excerpt:
As Revelation 12:12 makes clear, Satan knows his time is short at the
moment he is cast out of heaven. If the tribulation started and
Satan was not yet cast out of heaven, Satan would know his time is
short 3.5 years prior to when he is actually cast out of heaven, and
thus, Satan's wrath would start while he is still in heaven. But
Satan's wrath does not start when he is in heaven because of the way
the verse reads.
Rev 12:12 Therefore rejoice, ye
heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe
to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come
down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but
a short time.
As it is today, prior to the pretribulation rapture, neither Satan nor
any of the angels knows how long he has left, nor do we.
Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour
knoweth no man, no, not the
angels of heaven, but my Father only.
After the pretribulation rapture, Satan will finally know he has only 7
years
left. Since the verse says this knowledge of how little time is
left is the cause of Satan's wrath, then Satan's wrath must begin at
the start of the 7 year tribulation. And since the verse says
this wrath happens when Satan is cast down, then Satan is cast down at
the start of the 7 year tribulation.
In other words, the Lord's enemies will be made his footstool at the
start of the 7 year tribulation, and Jesus can then leave His Father's
side to go and get his bride in the rapture.
(But imagine the difficulty this question puts to the post trib
position! Is Satan and his enemies supposed to be vanquished
first, before Jesus leaves the Father? Impossible, because it is
Jesus Himself, who is vanquishing his enemies at the end of the
tribulation, in Revelation 19, and as also described in many other
parts of the Bible. So, how is it that Jesus is able to leave the
Father's side to vanquish His enemies on the earth, in the post trib
scenario, but Jesus is not able to leave the Father's side to rapture
the faithful!? This false accusation makes no sense!
Furthermore, according to pretrib, and according to Rev 12; it is
Michael, the Archangel, and his angels cast Satan out of heaven; so our
Lord's enemies are made his footstool, at the start of the 7 year
tribulation, without Him having to even get up!)
2. “In the same day...”
The Lord Yeshua tells us, in His own words,
exactly what His return will be like:
26 “And as it was in the days of Noah, so
shall it be also in the days of the Son of man.
27 “They did eat, they drank, they married wives,
they were given in marriage, until the day that Noe entered
into the ark, and the flood came, and destroyed them all.
28 “Likewise also as it was in the days of Lot;
they did eat, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they
builded;
29 “But the same day that Lot went out
of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them
all.
30 “Even thus shall it be in the day when the
Son of man is revealed.” [Luke 17:26-30]
And this:
29 “Immediately after
the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and
the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from
heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
30 “And then shall
appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all
the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man
coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.”
[Matthew 24:29-30]
In other words, the wrath of God which was poured out
upon the wicked followed the removal of those to be saved immediately,
in the same day, not seven (or 3½) years later!
The Lord Yeshua here says, unmistakably, that His return will be just
like these two historical examples. We are removed first, the world and
we will see Him coming in His glory, and then the wrath of God will be
poured out immediately, “in the same day...”
-------------
Answer:
I believe that when the pretribulation rapture happens, the same
day, fire will fall from heaven to consume the enemies of Israel, as
described in Ezekiel 38-39. However,
The Gog / Magog war in Ezekiel 38 is followed by a
period of
burning weapons for seven years.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/attackonamerica.htm
Key Excerpt.
Ezekiel 39:9 And they that dwell in the cities of Israel
shall
go forth, and shall set on fire and burn the weapons, both the shields
and the bucklers, the bows and the arrows, and the handstaves, and the
spears, and they shall burn them with fire seven years:
Furthermore, Noah entered the ark 7 days BEFORE
the rain fell. This
is also indicative of a 7 year tribulation. Noah did not enter
the ark the same day the rain fell.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/rapturegenesis2.htm
God calls Noah into the ark, and 7 days later, the flood
comes.
So, Noah is a type of the rapture before the 7 year tribulation, at the
end of which all of God's enemies are destroyed at Armageddon, like in
the flood.
Genesis 7:1 And the LORD said unto Noah, Come thou and
all
thy house into the ark; for thee have I seen righteous before me
in this generation.
Genesis 7:4 For yet seven days, and I will cause it to
rain upon
the earth forty days and forty nights; and every living substance that
I have made will I destroy from off the face of the earth.
Genesis 7:5 And Noah did according unto all that the LORD commanded
him.
I understand verse 4 & 5 to mean that Noah obeyed, and went in when
the Lord told him to, which was 7 days before the rain fell.
Controversy arrives when people forget that Noah was the type to
obey God, and they falsely assume that the word "selfsame day" in verse
13 refers
to the same
day the rain fell. The only way you can assume that Noah went
into
the ark late, is if you assume that Noah did not obey the Lord for a
period
of seven days. Do you think it is realistic that Noah, after
spending
120 years to build an ark, would disobey a direct command from God for
a period of 7 full days right before the world was destroyed, in direct
contrast to the scripture in verse 5?
I think that the words "selfsame day" in verse 13 refers to the
action
phrase
at the end of verse 16, "as God had commanded him: and the LORD shut
him
in".
---------
Furthermore, there is another point, from the same article, the same
verses quoted above:
The Bible emphasizes that the people are acting as if LIFE IS
PERFECTLY
NORMAL, "they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in
marriage,
until the day" (Matt 24:28), that the world is taking NO NOTE
of the
COMING judgment.
This indicates a pretribulation rapture, and is indicative of
life on earth prior to the events of Ezekiel 38-39, when the world is
at peace, and safety.
Things will not be very normal at the end of the seven year
tribulation; it's called the great tribulation for a reason!
3. The Apostle Paul tells us
[1 Corinthians 15:51-53] that “we shall ALL
be changed” “and the dead shall be raised” and “this mortal must put on
immortality”. When? “At the LAST trump.”
51 Behold, I show you a mystery; We shall not
all sleep, but we shall all be changed,
52 In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at
the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall
be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.
53 For this corruptible must put on
incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.
Dear hearts, there is only ONE series of “trumps” or
trumpets mentioned in Revelation, or anywhere else in the Bible,
concerning the Tribulation, and that is the Seven Trumpets. The Last
Trump must, therefore, be the seventh, which is when Christ returns
loudly, visibly, and triumphantly. But if some of “we” are “raptured”
at the beginning of the Tribulation, seven years before
the Lord’s return, how can we ALL be changed at that time?
In a pre-Trib or a mid-Trib rapture scenario, the seven seals haven’t
even happened yet, much less the seven trumpets. How could the Church
be “raptured” into heaven without receiving their glorified bodies?
This also says that the resurrection
of the righteous dead in Christ happens at the Lord’s visible
second coming, and Paul says further [1 Thessalonians 4:15]
that the resurrection of the righteous dead in Christ precedes
the rapture of the Church. How is any of this possible with either a
pre-Trib or a mid-Trib rapture of the Church?
-------------
Answer:
This is a series of questions, not one, and I have
a series of answers for all of them.
Is
the Last trump of 1 Cor 15 the "seventh trumpet"
of Rev 10-11?
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/seventhtrumpet.htm
Key excerpt:
When Paul wrote 1 Corinthians 15, where he
spoke about
the "last trump", the book of Revelation was not yet given to
mankind!
So,
neither Paul, nor his audience, would have any way to know what the
words
"last trump" meant if they were referring to something in
Revelation.
It is far more likely that Paul did know what he was talking about (he
wrote as if he did), and it is far more likely that his audience would
be able to understand what he was talking about (he wrote as if they
could).
So, what would his audience have assumed Paul was talking about?
Well, there is a "Feast of Trumpets", known as Rosh Hashanna. So,
"last trump" most likely refers to this feast of trumpets.
Next
issue, "How
can
the rapture be silent if it is at the trumpet blast?"
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/silentrapture.htm
Key
excerpt:
To say that God cannot act in a way in which only some will see, and
only some will hear, is 100% directly contrary to what scriptures
teach.
Not only can God give a command that only his sheep will hear, but
there
is abundant scriptural evidence which supports the position.
In fact, to boldly assert that all people will hear His trumpet
voice
command at the rapture is NOT consistent with John 5, "they that hear
shall
live", or John 10, "My sheep hear my voice".
Finally, to answer the question:
"But if some of
“we” are “raptured” at the beginning of the Tribulation, seven years before
the Lord’s return, how can we ALL be changed at that time?"
The word "all" in Greek, does not mean the same as "all" as we
often
understand it in English. In English, we assume "all" means "100%
of", but it does not. In Rev 13, it says "all" take the mark of
the beast, and we know that all who take the mark die, yet in
Zechariah, we see that there is a remnant who survive the tribulation;
who must have never taken the mark.
All of the dead in Christ, at that time, will be raptured. All
living Christians who are found worthy, at that time, will be raptured
afterwards. This does not mean that nobody will ever be converted
to Christ after those events, but those people, who repent later, will
have missed out on the event of the rapture.
4. “Wherefore gird
up the loins of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end
for the grace that is to be brought unto you at the revelation
of Yeshua Christ;” [1 Peter 1:13]
When is “the revelation” of Yeshua
Christ? According to the pre-Trib and mid-Trib Rapture theorists,
Christ’s “first second coming” is invisible and silent. If his “first
second coming” at a pre-Trib or a mid-Trib “rapture” is silent and
invisible, how can it be a “revelation”? And if a pre-Trib or a
mid-Trib Rapture is the “true” hope of the Church (according to the
Pre/Mid-Trib Rapture theorists), of what is Peter speaking here?
-------------
Answer:
Christ will be "revealed" at the pretribulation
rapture, to those raptured, of course; and this event will also be
revealed to many who are left behind; most likely those who thought
they would be saved. But perhaps most of the world will not
understand the full significance of the event of the pretribulation
rapture. (It is only those who thought they would be saved who
recognize they are left behind in these passages, below. The
unbelieving
world is not mentioned.) Even today many in the Church do not
understand the rapture, as this discussion shows.
Matt 25, the parable of the ten virgins, suggests that even the unwise
virgins will know that the rapture took place. Luke 13 says the same
thing; they will know they are left behind.
Matt 25:10 And
while they went to buy, the
bridegroom came; and they that were ready went in with him to the
marriage: and the door
was shut.
11 Afterward came
also the other virgins, saying, Lord, Lord, open to us.
12 But he answered and said, Verily I say
unto you, I know you not.
13 Watch therefore, for ye know neither
the day nor the hour wherein the Son of man cometh.
Luke 13:
23 Then said one unto him, Lord, are there
few
that be saved? And he said unto them,
24 Strive to enter in at the strait gate:
for
many, I say unto you, will seek to enter in, and shall not be able.
25 When once the
master of the house is
risen up, and hath shut to the door, and ye begin
to stand
without, and to
knock at the door, saying, Lord, Lord, open unto us; and he shall
answer and
say unto you, I know you not whence ye are:
26 Then shall ye begin to say, We have
eaten and drunk in thy presence, and thou hast taught in our streets.
27 But he shall say, I tell you, I know
you not whence ye are; depart from me, all ye workers of iniquity.
28 There shall be
weeping and gnashing of teeth, when ye shall see Abraham, and Isaac,
and Jacob, and all the prophets, in the kingdom of God, and you
yourselves thrust out.
29 And they shall come from the east, and
from the west, and from the north, and from the south, and shall sit
down in the kingdom of God.
We must "hope to the end", until our end, until the time when we are
made incorruptable.
5. Concerning the Lord’s
return, the apostle Paul tells us, “For the Lord himself shall descend
from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the
trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: Then WE
which are alive and REMAIN shall be caught up together with
them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever
be with the Lord.” [1 Thessalonians 4:16-17]
Since this unquestionably describes the situation on
the earth at the very moment of Christ’s 100% loud, visible,
public return (the pre-Trib “second” Second Coming), according to the
pre-Trib “theory”, Paul must not have expected to be raptured with the
Church at the pre-Tribbers previous “first” second coming! Apparently
not, or else he would not be “remaining”, one of those “Left Behind” on
the earth at the moment of the Lord’s visible return! Since he says
that “WE which are alive and REMAIN”, is it possible that the
apostle Paul did not consider himself to be righteous enough to have
been raptured along with the rest of the Church? Or did the
apostle Paul (or anyone else of note, prior to 1830) simply not believe
in or preach a pre-Trib Rapture at all?
-------------
Answer:
I've already addressed who may see the rapture
when it happens.
Yes, I do believe that Paul taught that he might not have been
righteous enough to be raptured. Look here:
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/alwayssaved.htm
Key excerpt:
Paul Preached He, Himself, might not be
saved!
1 Corinthians 9:24-27
24 Know ye not that they which run in a race run all, but one receiveth
the prize? So run, that ye may obtain.
25 And every man that striveth for the mastery is temperate in all
things. Now they do it to obtain a corruptible crown; but we an
incorruptible.
26 I therefore so run, not as uncertainly; so fight I, not as one that
beateth the air:
27 But I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest
that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a
castaway.
Philippians 3
8 Yea doubtless, and I count all things but loss for the excellency
of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the
loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ,
9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is
of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the
righteousness
which is of God by faith:
10 That I may know him, and the power of his resurrection, and the
fellowship of his sufferings, being made conformable unto his death;
11 If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the
dead.
12 Not as though I had already attained, either were
already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for
which
also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus.
13 Brethren, I count not myself to have apprehended:
but this one thing I do, forgetting those things which are behind, and
reaching forth unto those things which are before,
14 I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God
in Christ Jesus.
Next issue in question 5:
Who else prior to the 1800's taught the pretrib rapture? Two of
the earliest Church fathers.
Clement
and Polycarp on the Pretribulation Rapture.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/clement.htm
6. The apostle Paul says, in 2
Thessalonians 2:1-4:
1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming
of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
[Paul here treats the two events – the Lord’s
second coming AND the Rapture – as happening at the same time, even as
all of the rest of Scripture does. There is NO suggestion here of a
separation of seven (or 3½) years between the two events! Not
even a hint!]
2 That you be not soon shaken in mind, or be
troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as
that the day of Christ is at hand (or, “imminent”!)
[Here Paul is assuring them (and us) that
“the day” (of the Lord’s return AND the Rapture) WILL NOT COME until
certain events happen. Which blows the dispensationalist theory of
“imminence” out of the water. He does not want them to be “troubled” by
the “leaven” of this false doctrine, namely that
Christ could come at any time. Neither do we want that.]
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that
day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that
man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
4 Who opposes and exalts himself above all that is
called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sits in the temple
of God, showing himself that he is God.
[So Paul says that the
anti-Christ MUST be revealed first, and the Abomination
of Desolation established FIRST, BEFORE “the day of Christ” shall come.
What does this necessarily do to the pre-Trib/mid-Trib theory?]
-------------
Answer:
There are 4 points made above. All four, and
more, are answered at:
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/2thessalonians2.htm
Here is my summary or transliteration of
what I believe the passage is
saying (clarifications in parens): Note the differences in bold:
2Th 2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our
Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, (rapture)
2Th 2:2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by
spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of
Christ
(day of the Lord or tribulation) is at hand. (present, here now)
2Th 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day
shall not come (don't be
worried as if the day is present) except there come a falling
away (apostasia / departure / rapture) first, and that man of sin be
revealed,
the son of perdition;
The "day of Christ" is not the rapture, it is a time period that lasts
1000 years long, and starts with Satan being cast out of heaven, then
the pretribulation rapture, then the 7 year tribulation. (2 Peter
3 says a day with the Lord is as 1000 years.) The false report
was that this day had begun, and was present; this was troubling to
this early church, because it implied that they had missed the rapture
and that the tribulation long feared had begun. Paul wrote to
them to assure them that this day had not yet begun.
The words "for
that day shall not come" do not exist in the Bible; there is no
Greek counterpart. It is a bad translation, and cannot be relied
upon. A better translation is "don't be worried as if the day is
present", since the topic that Paul is discussing, is whether or not
the day of the Lord is present, or not. The topic is not that
they were fearing that the day of the Lord was coming. That's
true doctrine; which could not have been the troubling false
report. Paul presented two things, two signs that would signify
and show whether the Day of the Lord was
present or not. Paul did not present two things "that must come
first", before the coming. For if that were the case, even if
those two things came, you'd still have the same problem that they had:
"Is the day
of the Lord present or not, or how long do we have to wait from the
time of those two things, and the start of the Day of the Lord?"
The man of sin's revealing is NOT listed as something that must come
first, before the 'coming'. The man of sin's revealing is listed
as something that indicates that the day of the Lord is present. The
revealing of the man of sin, therefore, happens AFTER the day of the
Lord starts,
and AFTER the rapture. This fits with Satan being cast out of
heaven at the time of the pretrib rapture. Then, Satan becomes
wrathful, and empowers the man of sin.
7. The Apostle Peter says, in
1 Peter 1:7...
“That the trial of your faith,
being much more precious than of gold that perisheth, though it be
tried with fire, might be found unto praise and honor and glory at
the appearing of Jesus Christ:”
First, this states that we are to be praised and
honored because of the way we endure the trial of our faith
until Christ appears. What “trial of our faith” is there in a
pre-Trib or a mid-Trib rapture? None. We would all be
sucked out of the middle of a perfectly ordinary day, to party-hearty
with the Lord for seven years? [There are so many things wrong
with this, it’s a book all by itself. We recommend ours: “Exposing
Satan's ‘Left Behind’”, at http://www.leftbehindlie.com ]
Second, this states that the praise and honor doesn’t
happen until “the appearing of Jesus Christ”, which even the most rabid
pre-Tribbers concede doesn’t happen until the Lord’s second
Second Coming, when He returns “with His Church” [a phrase which, not
incidentally, appears nowhere in the Bible in any
end-times context!].
So how does a logical, Truth-loving Christian square
all this with a pre-Trib or a mid-Trib scenario?
-------------
Answer:
First, what trial is there in the pre trib
scenario? I hate to mention it, but this man has put my beliefs
on trial right now!
There is
tribulation now.
John 16:33 "These things I have spoken
unto you, that in me ye might
have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of
good
cheer; I have overcome the world."
Second, the Lord Jesus will appear at the pretribulation rapture, as
previously explained.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/silentrapture.htm
Third, men who attack the doctrine of the Lord appearing to rapture us
prior to the tribulation are men who are trying to
steal my crown! (And yours, dear reader!)
2 Timothy 4:8
Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness,
which the
Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me
only, but unto all them also
that love his appearing.
Another verse referencing a crown, in Rev 3:10,
speaks on the pre tribulation rapture.
Rev 3:10 Because thou hast kept the word of
my patience, I also will
keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the
world,
to try them that dwell upon the earth.
Rev 3:11 "Behold, I come quickly: hold that fast which thou hast, that
no man take thy crown."
How can you "love his appearing" if it is required that you go through
7 year period of tribulation before His return? Instead of
looking forward to the day, you would dread it. Where is the
comfort in the post trib scenario? The pre trib rapture is the
ONLY doctrine of rapture prophecy that brings comfort to those who hear
it, and have their hearts in the right place. Accurate
& true prophecy brings comfort to the believer.
1 Corinthians 14:3 But he that
prophesieth speaketh unto
men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort.
1 Thessalonians 4:18 Wherefore
comfort one another with these
words.
1 Thessalonians 5:11 Wherefore comfort yourselves together, and
edify one another, even as also ye do.
1 Thessalonians 5:14 Now we exhort you, brethren, warn them that are
unruly, comfort the feebleminded, support the weak, be patient toward
all
men.
But for those whose hearts condemn themselves,
they cannot "love his appearing", since they have "only a fearful
expectation of judgment", or a dread
of the Lord's appearing, and therefore, they must have a post trib
belief!
Hebrews 10:26-27 If we
deliberately keep on sinning after we have received the knowledge of
the truth, no sacrifice for sins is left, but only a
fearful expectation of judgment and of raging fire that will consume
the enemies of God.
There is only one holy response to sin:
God's destruction. Either Jesus died in your place and you accept
that, or you must expect to be punished by God's judgment on
you.
How will the dead in Christ be saved? They will not go through
the tribulation to come. If we have to go through the coming
tribulation to be saved, then all the dead in Christ are lost!
Paul, when he introduced the topic of the rapture
in 1 Thessalonians 4-5, mentioned that the dead in Christ will not miss
out on the rapture. This means that the dead, who have not gone
through, and will not go through, the tribulation to come, also means
that there is no need for us to go through it, either.
8. How can there be a
wedding of the Lamb, unless “the guests” are ALL there?
In Matthew 24:29-31, our Lord is describing the end
times to His disciples:
29 Immediately after the tribulation of
those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give
her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the
heavens shall be shaken:
30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man
in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they
shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and
great glory.
31 And he shall send his angels with a great
sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the
four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
These are the words of our Lord describing the
situation on earth at the moment of His return. The angels
shall gather his elect from the four winds (everywhere on earth), and
from every part of heaven. If “His elect” are not gathered together
from heaven AND earth until the moment of His Second Coming, HOW could
there be a “Marriage Supper of the Lamb” at any time prior to the
moment when “the guests” are “all there” in heaven? Hmmm?
Moreover, in the Book of the Revelation, the apostle
John clearly states that there will NOT be a wedding until the number
of those who make up “the guests” (ALL of “the dead in Christ”) is
complete:
“And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw
under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God,
and for the testimony which they held: And they cried with a loud
voice, saying, ‘How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge
and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth?’ And white robes
were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they
should rest yet for a little season, until their fellowservants
also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be
fulfilled.” [Revelation 6:9-11]
This does not happen until the
anti-Christ is slain by the Lord, at His return. [2 Thessalonians 2:8]
This is further confirmed by the author of Hebrews,
speaking of the Old Testament righteous:
39 And these all, having obtained a good
report through faith, received not the promise:
40 God having provided some better thing for us, that
they without us should not be made perfect. [Hebrews 11:39-40]
In other words, we will all be dealt
with appropriately at one and the same time.
The timing of the Marriage Supper is further
established in Revelation 19:7, which states that it does not
happen until AFTER the destruction of Babylon, which can only be
sometime after the END of the seven years of the Tribulation.
Most importantly, in Matthew 24:29-31, our Lord is
describing the end times to His disciples:
29 Immediately after the tribulation of
those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give
her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the
heavens shall be shaken:
30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man
in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they
shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and
great glory.
31 And he shall send his angels with a great
sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect
from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
These are the words of our Lord describing the
situation on earth at the moment of His return. The
angels shall gather his elect from the four winds (every point of the
compass on earth), and from every part of heaven. If ALL of “His
elect” are gathered from heaven AND earth at the END of the
Tribulation, HOW can there have been a prior “Marriage Supper of the
Lamb” if “the Bride” could not possibly have been there at any time
prior to this moment?
-------------
Answer:
I've already linked to my commentary on Matthew 24, but here it is
again, (this is the first of 5 parts):
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/matt24commentary1.htm
Matthew's verse, Matt 24:31, is an amalgamation, or parallel, with many
other verses in the Old Testament, see my commentary above.
A wedding takes place over time, there is a "bridal week" that
parallels the tribulation week of 7 years.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/wedding14.htm
This bridal week is mentioned twice in scripture:
Judges 14:1-18 ...And Samson made a feast
there, as was customary for
bridegrooms. ...If you can give me the answer within the seven days of
the feast... She cried the whole seven days of the feast.
Genesis 29:22-28 So Laban brought
together all the people of the place
and gave a feast. ... Finish this daughter's bridal week.
Now, the Bible tells us that no man has ascended to heaven.
John 3:13 And no man hath
ascended up to heaven,
but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in
heaven.
Acts 2:34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but
he saith himself, The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,
And Jesus tells us he is going to heaven, to build mansions there for
us!
John 14:1 Let not your heart be
troubled: ye believe in God,
believe also in me.
2 In my Father's house are many
mansions: if it were not so, I would
have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.
3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and
receive
you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.
4 And whither I go ye know, and the way ye know.
And, yes, Revelation 19 confirms that saints will follow Jesus from out
of heaven at his return.
Now, I have a question. How did these people get into heaven
before that return? The answer is the pretribulation
rapture! They were there for 7 years; during the bridal week!
Psalm 27:5 For in the time of
trouble he shall hide me in his
pavilion: in the secret of his tabernacle shall he hide me; he
shall set me up upon a rock.
9. In our Lord’s parable of the
wise and foolish virgins, as soon as the Bridegroom arrives, he goes in
to the wedding feast with the wise virgins (those who were prepared)
and the door is shut, and no one else is admitted after that.
IF this is a metaphor for the Lord's return, as many Bible scholars
consider it to be, and IF there is going to be a pre-Trib Rapture, this
means that NO ONE COULD BE SAVED during the Tribulation, which happens
AFTER the pre-Trib Rapture. Since we know that there WILL be people
saved during the Tribulation (the souls beneath the altar, etc.), this
would necessarily mean that the pre-Trib Rapture is itself impossible!
-------------
Answer:
Matthew 25:1-13 The Ten Virgins Parable:
teaching the pretribulation rapture
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/tenvirgins.htm
Matthew 25 does not teach that those who do not go into the door cannot
be saved. It only says that the Lord will not open the door to
them! They miss out on their opportunity to become the
bride!
The bride has a special place: she will rule with Jesus.
Rev 5:10 And hast made us unto our God
kings and priests: and we
shall reign on the earth.
Rev 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me
in my
throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in
his throne.
This implies that there will be others who will be ruled over; the
nations, the remnant of people who survive the tribulation.
If you end up being a "foolish virgin" who misses the pre tribulation
rapture, and the door is shut on you, there remains hope!
10. Further in the Book of the
Revelation, we find this: xxx
“...and I saw the souls of them that were
beheaded for the witness of Yeshua, and for the word of God, and
which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had
received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and
they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years... This is the
first resurrection.” [Revelation 20:4-5]
If this is the first resurrection (the
second resurrection being of the wicked, at the end of the Millennial
Reign), and this first resurrection (which is also the ONLY
general resurrection of the righteous mentioned anywhere in the
Bible!) includes ALL of those who are killed by the forces of the
anti-Christ DURING the Tribulation, and if the resurrection of ALL of
the dead in Christ precedes the Rapture of the Church
(as Paul states in 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17), how is a pre-Trib Rapture
of the Church even POSSIBLE?
-------------
Answer:
The First Resurrection includes Jesus, and is
like a harvest.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/firstresurrection.htm
Key Excerpt:
The word translated as "first", is "protos".
4413 protos {pro'-tos}
contracted superlative of 4253; TDNT - 6:865,965; adj
AV - first 84, chief 9, first day 2, former 2, misc 7; 104
1) first in time or place
1a) in any succession of things or persons
2) first in rank
2a) influence, honour
2b) chief
2c) principal
3) first, at the first
By using the word "protos", is John really saying that no
resurrection
has ever happened, or will happen, before the time when the saints of
the
tribulation who refused the mark of the beast are raised from the
dead?
Obviously not. Is he saying that there never was a resurrection
to
immortality before this time? Again, no. For if so, he
would
be denying that Christ had risen from the dead & was resurrected to
immortality. Therefore, the term "first", or "protos", to
describe
the resurrection is not saying that there is "no resurrection prior in
time" to the end of the tribulation. Instead, the term "first"
points
to the difference between the resurrection before the millinnium (to
immortality)
and the other kind of resurrection after it (to shame and contempt),
one
is the chief, or principal resurrection.
- - -
Second, Paul says Christ is "risen from the dead, and become the
firstfruits
of them that slept". The term firstfruits is a harvest analogy
that
is consistent with other scriptures which describe the resurrection as
a harvest. We should note that a harvest takes place over time,
not
all at once. There are several phases to a harvest; firstfruits,
main harvest, and then gleanings. Christ, as "firstfruits
of
them that slept", would be the first person of a group, "of them that
slept",
to be resurrected. Like a harvest, The first (principal)
resurrection
has already begun, it started with Christ as firstfruits. Just as
there is a time delay between the time when the first fruits come ripe
and later when the rest of the harvest comes in, we have been waiting
for
the rest "of them that slept" to be raised. Thus, the harvest
analogy,
which I will examine further, more completely supports the fact that
Jesus
must be included in the first (principal) resurrection, the
resurrection
of the kind or type to immortality.
11. Yeshua also said, “And except
those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved:
but for the elect’s sake those days shall be shortened.”
[Matthew 24:22] Excuse us, but if “the elect” will have already been
“raptured” seven years previously, they would not even be ON the earth!
Why would those days (of the Tribulation) be shortened for people
who are not even supposed to be on the earth?
-------------
Answer:
This question also falsely assumes people cannot be saved after the
rapture; just as he denied that people could be saved after the door is
shut in the 10 virgins parable.
Talk about not understanding how God works. You can pull
every living thing out of the earth in a garden, and more green things
will soon sprout up and grow! Likewise, God can rapture the
elect, and more men will repent and become righteous. God
converted Paul on the road to Damascus! God can even talk to a
man through a donkey! People can become converted without there
being anyone around to teach them or baptise them.
In another argument, our critic even claims that it will take "no
faith" to come to the faith, after witnessing a rapture of the
righteous!
His arguments contradict themselves; as later, he admits that people
will be saved during the tribulation!
Clearly, the days will be shortened for the people, the elect, those
converted, who remain on the earth. Revelation is filled with
expressions referring to people who "dwell on the earth" (nine verses),
as if that is a peculiar descriptive phrase, "dwell on the earth", that
has
meaning. Such a descriptive phrase can only have meaning if there
are people who do not "dwell on the earth" from which to
differentiate. The other people are obviously in heaven, and they
got there in the pretribulation rapture.
Rev 3:10 Because thou hast kept the
word of my patience, I also will
keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the
world,
to try them that dwell upon the earth.
[Rev 8:13] And I beheld, and heard an angel flying through the
midst of heaven, saying with a loud voice, Woe, woe, woe, to the inhabiters
of the earth [those not raptured?] by reason of the other voices
of the trumpet of the three angels, which are yet to sound!
Revelation 12:12 Therefore rejoice, you heavens and you who dwell in them!
But woe to the earth and the sea, because the devil has gone
down to you! He is filled with fury, because he knows that his time is
short."
[Rev 19:1] And after these things I heard a great voice of much
people in heaven [the raptured?], saying, Alleluia; Salvation,
and
glory, and honour, and power, unto the Lord our God:
12. Yeshua promised us that,
“And you shall be hated of all men for my name's sake: but
he that endures to the end shall be saved.” [Matthew 10:22]
First, to whom is this addressed, if not to the Church?
Second: If the Church is removed from the earth before the
Tribulation even starts, what is there to be “endured”
-------------
Answer:
This question is a repeat of a prior question. We, today, endure
tribulation. There is tribulation today.
John 16:33 "These things I have spoken
unto you, that in me ye might
have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of
good
cheer; I have overcome the world."
13. In the above verses, after
listing a terrible sequence of trials which the end-times readers will
experience, Yeshua says that “he who endures to the end [of the
sequence] shall be saved”. This does NOT say that ONLY those who
“endure to the end” will be saved. It says that, IF you are in this
group, you MUST endure to the end to be saved. The alternative is
accepting the Mark of the Beast, and suffering the loss of your
salvation as a result. If Yeshua knew that His Church would be raptured
out of the world before the Tribulation, against His
specific request of the Father [John 17:15], WHY would He not make ANY
specific reference to this singular event anywhere in
His Word? If Scripture really is describing a pre-Trib rapture, why is
the Lord Yeshua so completely concerned with those who would be “left
behind” without ever mentioning that they would be?
-------------
Answer:
Matt 24:13 But he that shall
endure unto the end, the same shall be saved.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/endureend.htm
Which does the verse mean? You decide which is consistent with
scripture.
"But he that shall endure (physically survive) unto the
end
(of the tribulation), the same shall be saved."
"But he that shall endure (in faithfulness) unto the end (of
his life), the same shall be saved."
The Bible says that many who survive to the end of the tribulation will
be killed by the Lord upon his return.
Revelation 19:21 The rest of them were
killed with the sword that came out of the mouth of the rider on the
horse, and all the birds gorged themselves on their flesh.
Next, regarding John 17:15 "I pray not that thou
shouldest take them out of the world..."
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/ipraynot.htm
Those who use John
17:15 to deny the rapture are simply not understanding the grammar of
the
sentence.
John 17:15 I pray not that thou shouldest take them
out of the world, but that thou shouldest keep them from the evil.
Jesus is not "actively praying" to keep us in the world. Look at
the location of the word "not" in the sentence. It modifies
"pray",
it does not modify the phrase "take them out". Please note the
difference
if the verse said the following, "I pray that thou shouldest not
take them out of the world". And please note, the verse does not
say that at all.
Jesus, by saying what he is not praying for, is acknowleding that he
could pray for God to take us out of the world, as will happen at the
rapture
as shown in 1 Thess 4:13-18 and John 14:2-3. But instead of
praying
for that, Jesus prayed for something greater that includes the promise
to take us out of the world at the rapture, just like Solomon prayed
for
something greater than wealth, but also received wealth.
2 Chronicles 1:11 And God said to Solomon, Because
this
was in thine heart, and thou hast not asked riches, wealth, or
honour,
nor the life of thine enemies, neither yet hast asked long life; but
hast asked wisdom and knowledge for thyself, that thou mayest judge
my people, over whom I have made thee king:
2 Chronicles 1:12 Wisdom and knowledge is granted unto thee; and I
will give thee riches, and wealth, and honour, such as none of the
kings
have had that have been before thee, neither shall there any after thee
have the like.
Solomon did "pray not" for riches. Did he receive riches?
Yes.
Solomon did "pray not" for wealth. Did he receive wealth?
Yes.
Solomon did "pray not" for honour. Did he receive honour?
Yes.
The point in John 17:15 is that what Jesus did pray for, to "keep
them
from the evil", is greater and better than a prayer to "take them out
of
the world", just like wisdom was the best thing to ask for, because it
leads to all the rest!
The prayer to "keep them from the evil" would include the rapture,
but
it is greater than just the rapture because it also is applicable for
Christians
of all ages, including saints in the tribulation who are protected by
the
seal of God.
The pretribulation rapture will successfully, for those caught up to
heaven, "keep them from the evil" of the antichrist, and from the evil
of the tribulation.
Thus, the rapture is perfectly fitting with John 17:15, and is not
contradicted
by that verse at all. The verse supports pretrib doctrine.
Just as wisdom included riches, wealth and honour, "keep them from the
evil" includes the pretribulation rapture promise.
What should you pray for? Pray for wisdom. Pray to be
kept
from the evil of the tribulation to come.
Luke 21:36 Watch ye therefore, and pray always, that ye
may be accounted worthy to escape all these things that shall come to
pass,
and to stand before the Son of man.
Mat 6:9 After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art
in
heaven, Hallowed be thy name.
Mat 6:10 Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in
heaven.
Mat 6:11 Give us this day our daily bread.
Mat 6:12 And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.
Mat 6:13 And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil:
For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.
Luk 11:4 And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one
that
is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us
from
evil.
14. In a pre-Trib/mid-Trib
Rapture of the Church, even as portrayed in the “Left Behind” series of
“religious fictions”, there would be untold numbers of unsaved people
killed as a direct result of God’s intervention, by His removing the
Church all at once with NO warning whatsoever. Many of these people
would have had no chance to hear the gospel of Yeshua
Christ!
Since “The Lord is...not willing that ANY
should perish, but that ALL should come to repentance” [2
Peter 3:9], how does this crystal-clear New Testament statement about
Yahweh’s intentions square with the undeniable eternal consequences to
the unsaved who are killed without warning as a consequence of
the catastrophes resulting from the instantaneous removal – by God – of
“the elect”?
-------------
Answer:
Our critic so heavily relies upon Matthew 24 to try
and make his points, and yet he forgets a key verse in Matthew 24
(verse 14), when he wrote, "Many of
these people would have had no chance
to hear the gospel of Yeshua Christ"
Matthew 24:14: And this gospel of the
kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all
nations; and then shall the end come.
Furthermore, God is not being inconsistent in allowing people to
die. Death
has been the consequence of sin since the beginning of the days of
Adam. God also killed people in Noah's flood, and at
Sodom, and at Jericho. Men are also killed in many natural
disasters all the
time, even today. Death is conquered by the resurrections, and
Jesus will ultimately conquer death.
1 Corinthians 15:20 But Christ has indeed been raised from the dead,
the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since death came through a
man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. 22 For as in Adam all die, so in
Christ all will be made alive. 23
But each in his own turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes,
those who belong to him. 24
Then
the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father
after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has
put all his enemies under his feet. 26
The
last enemy to be destroyed is death.
15. One consequence of the
“doctrine of imminence” is that many lost people who will have never
have heard the Gospel will be killed by the hand of God. The Lord says
to the prophet Ezekiel: “When I say unto the wicked, ‘Thou shalt surely
die’; and thou givest him not warning, nor speakest to warn the wicked
from his wicked way, to save his life; the same wicked man shall die in
his iniquity; but his blood will I require at thine hand.” [Ezekiel
3:18] If the Lord demands that we warn the wicked in order to try to
save their souls, are we not also responsible for not doing
anything that would directly and predictably result in their premature
deaths? Such as contributing to the rebuilding of the Temple in
Jerusalem, which will hasten the arrival of the “pre-Trib rapture”?
-------------
Answer:
If even we do good, we are "contributing to other's deaths", according
to our critic, then he clearly is struggling with the concept of
salvation; wondering
about the fate of those who have died who have never heard the
Gospel. Romans speaks on it.
Romans 1:18 The wrath of God is being
revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of men
who suppress the truth by their wickedness, 19 since what may be known about God is plain to
them, because God has made it
plain to them. 20 For
since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities—his eternal
power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, being understood from
what has been made, so that men are without
excuse.
We are not only responsible for the deaths of other men, for failing to
warn them properly, as Ezekiel warns, but, ultimately, we are
responsible for the death of Jesus, because we have all sinned.
This is the gospel message of salvation:
Rom 5:8 But God commendeth his love
toward us, in that, while
we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
1John 1:8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the
truth is not in us.
1John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to
forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and
shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the
dead, thou shalt be saved.
Rom 10:10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with
the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
Mat 10:32 Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I
confess also before my Father which is in heaven.
16. If you really believe in
the so-called “doctrine of imminence” – that you might be literally
“raptured” at any moment – and you are driving a car, truck, boat, or
plane when it happens, might not your actions cause someone who had not
yet heard the Gospel of Yeshua Christ to be killed in the ensuing
“accident”? To be theologically consistent, does not anyone who
believes in and preaches the “doctrine of imminence” not have a
Christian duty to protect such lost people by immediately
surrendering ALL of your operator’s license(s), and immediately ceasing
to operate all motor vehicles? If not, WHY NOT?
-------------
Answer:
God is sovereign. God can do anything He
wants,
including rapturing people out of moving vehicles, including suspending
the laws of momentum, if God wants to protect the lost. But it
will not be a time of God's protection for the lost. It is a time
of tribulation. During the tribulation, it appears that half of
humankind will be killed. First, 1/4 will be lost, then, another
1/3 of humanity, leaving only 2/4ths (one half) of the original.
And then,
multitudes will be killed by the Lord when he finally returns, in
Revelation 19, as discussed.
Revelation 6:8 And I looked, and behold a
pale horse: and his name that sat on him was Death, and Hell followed
with him. And power was given unto them over the fourth part
of the
earth, to kill with sword, and with hunger, and with death, and with
the beasts of the earth.
Revelation
9:18 By these three was the
third part of men killed, by the fire, and by the smoke, and by
the
brimstone, which issued out of their mouths.
I can't help but be reminded of the
Lord's rebuke, which seems so applicable to our critic's argument:
Matthew
23:24 You blind guides! You strain out a gnat but swallow a
camel.
17. How fair
would it be for people who only “believed” after seeing
people disappear before their very eyes, to be accorded such superior
treatment by God, as compared with those who had lived their entire
lives in true faith, WITHOUT seeing the promise, even as Abraham,
Joseph, David, and all of the rest of the faithful have – the “cloud of
witnesses”, [Hebrews 11:1-40] – down through the centuries? What
other example of such extraordinarily undeserved preferential treatment
by God of ANY other group of people is there ANYWHERE in the Bible?
-------------
Answer:
And yes, God's favor is undeserved, by all of us, because we all are
sinners who deserve nothing but death for our sins, were it not for
Jesus who died in our place.
Romans 11:6 And if
they are saved by God's kindness, then it is not by their good
works. For in that case, God's wonderful kindness would not be what it
really is--free and undeserved.
It is perfectly fair for people to be saved through Jesus, and to
repent and be saved after the
rapture. The Bible is filled with stories of miracles, after
which, people believed in the Lord. What Bible is our critic
reading? Our critic reminds me of the men described in this verse:
Acts 13:46 Then Paul and Barnabas
waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should
first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge
yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the
Gentiles.
18. The Bible says that,
“Without faith it is impossible to please Him [God]” [Hebrews 11:6].
But if the Church were to be removed by God prior to the Tribulation,
and tens of thousands of VCRs are “Left Behind” with slick, VHS
videotape explanations of what will have just happened, how much
“faith” would it then take for anyone to “believe” in God? How
much “trust” in an invisible, spirit God would be required? Answer:
NONE.
-------------
Answer:
And yet, apparently, today, this man has no faith to believe in the
pretribulation rapture, even though he seems to be an "expert", and has
clearly read enough to know that the doctrine exists, and that certain
men believe it, and teach it in many ways!
There are many things that men do not have faith for today. Men
do not have faith that following God's laws will lead to
prosperity. Men feel that stealing is a method of prosperity, as
men reject honest weights and measures of gold and silver, and use
paper money, world wide, instead.
Many men are given various miracles, to boost their faith, and because
of their faith. Even after the rapture, it will require faith to
believe in God, because the tribulation is a time of testing, and a
time of deception.
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/deceptionend.htm
2 Thess 2:8 And then shall that
Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall
consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the
brightness
of his coming:
9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all
power and signs and lying wonders,
10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish;
because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be
saved.
11 And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion,
that they should believe a lie:
12 That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had
pleasure in unrighteousness.
19. If “the Church” is to be
removed by God before the Tribulation, WHY is this group
of people to be treated so differently by God? The 100% consistent
message of the Bible is that we MUST be purified and refined by
tribulation in order to enter the kingdom of God [Deuteronomy 4:30-31;
Isaiah: 48:10; Daniel 12:10; Zechariah 13:9; Matthew 3:11-12; 24:21;
John 16:33; Acts 14:22; Romans 5:3-5; 8:35; 12:12; 1 Thessalonians 3:4;
Revelation 2:9-10; 7:14]. HOW is this to be accomplished if we
are sucked out of the middle of a perfectly ordinary day, right in the
middle of our perfectly secure, safe, comfortable, and predictable lives?
-------------
Answer:
His verses are a reference to the coming tribulation that some must
suffer through; because tribulation is certainly coming. But none
of those verses say that we must suffer through the coming tribulation
in order to enter the kingdom of God; again, because there is ample
tribulation today for any true believer.
See my article:
Do we need the tribulation to refine and purify
us?
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/tribulationpurify.htm
The Bible teaches
that those who sin wilfully after coming to a knowledge of the truth
will only have a dread of tribulation; because they, by their actions,
have rejected the blood of Jesus as a covering for sins, and as the way
of salvation to enter the kingdom of God. The Bible teaches that
through Jesus, (not through tribulation) we enter the kingdom of God.
Matthew 7:21
"Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom
of heaven, but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.
It's through "doing the will of the Father", not through "tribulation"!
Matthew 18:3
And he said: "I tell you the truth, unless you change and become like
little children, you will never enter the kingdom of
heaven.
It's about you needing to change, not about you needing to suffer!
Matthew 23:13
"Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You
shut the kingdom of heaven in men's faces. You yourselves do
not enter, nor will you let those enter who are trying
to.
Tribulation means enduring the hypocrites! Those hypocrites were
the ones who brought tribulation upon God's faithful; they killed
Jesus, and later, Stephen!
John 3:5
Jesus answered, "I tell you the truth, no one can enter the kingdom
of God unless he is born of water and the Spirit.
I'm sorry, I didn't see where Jesus said we had to be born by fire and
tribulation! No, but by water and by Spirit!
Here is the salvation message, again:
Rom 10:9 That if thou shalt
confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and
shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the
dead, thou shalt be saved.
Rom 10:10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with
the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
20. Our Lord tells His
disciples that they (the faithful) WILL SEE the Abomination of
Desolation, in Matthew 24:15:
“When you therefore shall
see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the
prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso reads, let him understand:)”
First, to whom
is this addressed, if not to the Church? The parenthetical expression (whoso
reads, let him understand) above is a
crystal-clear indication that the intended audience for this warning
extends far beyond the tiny circle of people who were actually
listening to our Lord speak.
Second, HOW would it be possible
for the faithful to SEE the Abomination of Desolation in a
pre-Tribulation Rapture scenario? They wouldn’t even be on the earth
when it happened!
Third, if this is “really”
addressed to “Tribulation saints” who had been “left behind”, why
would our Lord (and Paul) be more concerned about them
than they were about those who were going to be “raptured” BEFORE the
Tribulation, to whom neither the Lord nor any other New Testament
writer addressed a single word specifically mentioning a pre-Trib
Rapture of the Church?
Fourth, WHY would our Lord, if
He really knew that the faithful were going to be removed by God
3½ years BEFORE the Abomination of Desolation, intentionally
mislead them (and us) with the above statement? Why would He, at this
particular juncture, NOT tell us that we have nothing to worry about,
because we will have already been taken out of the world? This is even
harder to swallow, given His repeated assurances about other things He
told the disciples: “If it were not so, I would have told you”
[John 14:2], PLUS His prayer to the Father, previously mentioned: “I
pray not that You should take them out of the world,
but that You should keep them from the evil one.” [John
17:15]
-------------
Answer:
First, Matt 24 is not just addressed to
tribulation saints. It was also addressed to the people who lived
in Jesus' day, to warn them about the destruction of Jerusalem in 70
A.D. Luke words things slightly differently than Matthew.
Luke 21:20 And when ye shall see
Jerusalem compassed with armies, then
know that the desolation thereof is nigh.
21 Then let them which are in Judaea flee to the mountains; and let
them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are
in the countries enter thereinto.
Prophecy is often given in such ways that it has an immediate partial
fulfillment (so that the words will be recorded) and then, a much later
fulfillment. There are over 300 prophecies of Jesus fulfilled
when he came the first time. A study of what was fulfilled can
teach one a lot about how prophecy is given, and fulfilled.
Second, to answer the question, "How will the faithful see the
abomination of desolation, which
takes place in the middle of the tribulation?" Clearly, men will
be
saved after the rapture, and become faithful!
Third, our critic obviously knows the answer to his second question,
since he gives it in his third question! So, he asks, "why is the
Lord concerned with saints in the tribulation?" Simple. God
is love. Our critic's mindset is truly a sight to behold; and
again and again speaks of his difficulty with understanding and
accepting salvation.
His third question also contains a false
accusation, that to us, the Lord never tells us about the pre
tribulation rapture, "...those who were
going to be “raptured” BEFORE the Tribulation, to whom neither the Lord
nor any other New Testament writer addressed a single word specifically
mentioning a pre-Trib Rapture of the Church?"
Well, I have only listed about 300 verses from the Bible that teach
about the pre-tribulation rapture, in my "introduction" study on the
rapture, here:
http://www.bibleprophesy.org/rapture.htm
Fourth, why would the Lord intentionally mislead you? He tells
you. Repeatedly. Because you are wicked, lost, blind, in
darkness, because you have rejected truth.
Mat 13:10 And the disciples came, and
said unto him, Why speakest
thou unto them in parables?
Mat 13:11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto
you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is
not
given.
Mat 11:25 At that time Jesus answered and
said, I thank thee, O Father,
Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the
wise
and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes.
"It is the glory of God to conceal
a thing!" (Prov 25:2)
Isaiah 44:18 They have not known
nor understood: for he [God]
hath shut their eyes, that they cannot see; and their hearts, that they
cannot understand.
2 Corinthians 4:3 But if our
gospel be hid, it is hid to them
that are lost:
2Thess 2:11 And for this cause God
shall send them strong delusion,
that they should believe a lie:
Romans 11:25 For I would not, brethren,
that ye should be ignorant of
this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness
in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be
come
in.
John 1:5 And the light shineth in
darkness; and the darkness
comprehended it not.
Ezek. 14:9 And if the prophet be deceived
when he hath spoken a thing,
I
the LORD have deceived that prophet, and I will stretch out my hand
upon him, and will destroy him from the midst of my people Israel.
Romans 1:24 Wherefore God also gave
them up to uncleanness through
the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies
between
themselves:
25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served
the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for
even their women did change the natural use into that which is against
nature:
1 Kings 22:23 Now therefore, behold, the
LORD hath put a lying spirit
in the mouth of all these thy prophets, and the LORD hath spoken
evil
concerning thee.
And, our critic concluded with using John 17:15, which was already
addressed.
My summary: Many of his questions contained 3-4
questions. And many of these questions contained the same
question over and over, such as "How can anyone be saved after the
rapture?", "What kind of tribulation is there today?". Many of
these questions show extremely poor scholarship; that anyone with a
basic understanding of grammar and the gospel could answer. Many
of his
questions go to show the questioner's misunderstanding of salvation,
and none of his questions point to the way of salvation. Further,
two of his points (or more) require rejecting Jesus. First, to
say we must suffer tribulation to be saved, is a denial of how we are
saved through Jesus dying for our sins. Second, to say that there
is no resurrection prior to the end of the tribulation (his argument
from Rev 20) requires a denial of the resurrection of Jesus. And
yet, to refute his false accusations, I was drawn to the gospel message
of salvation, over and over again.
These were not "unanswerable" questions; they have had answers ever
since the Bible was written.